I understood that the fallacy was to believe that the amount of
work was fixed. I don't see why a tax that has the
effect of restricting the supply of labour (as the WST does?)
sould be fallacious in this way. And surely if it is a wage
subsidy as David Chapman suggests, it is the other side of the
coin to Gavin Cameron's point that one of the explanations
for high unemployment is high labour taxes or high minimum wages.
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